How does the Predictor Tool work?

The tool analyzes official cutoff data to help students either check historical admission trends or predict which colleges they might be eligible for based on their scores.

Where can I find the cutoffs?

Use the Cut-Off tab to view lists of cutoff percentages filtered by city, college, branch, and category from CAP rounds using simple dropdowns

How do I predict eligible colleges?

In the Predict Colleges tab, enter your percentage, category, branch, and city preference to get a list of eligible colleges and branches.

Can I filter colleges by specific criteria?

Yes, you can filter by city, college, branch, and category using structured dropdowns that load data from an organized format.

What’s new in this version of the tool?

The tool has been upgraded to show nearby college cutoffs based on your percentage, allowing you to shortlist options faster and more accurately.

Are CAP round updates included?

Yes, every time a new CAP round is announced, the tool updates its backend data to reflect the latest eligibility predictions.

How is this tool improved over time?

We continuously enhance accuracy, usability, and data coverage based on user feedback and suggestions

Can I sort college results?

Yes, advanced sorting options let you sort colleges by name, CAP round cutoff, and other useful criteria.

DbatuEngineering

Top 5 Mistakes Students Make During College Counseling

Counseling Mistakes

College counseling is the final step before you enter your dream college — yet many students lose opportunities due to simple mistakes. In this post, we’ll break down the most common errors students make during counseling and how you can avoid them.

1. Not Researching Colleges in Advance

Many students start researching options only after counseling begins, leaving them confused or rushed.

✅ Tip: Use our College Predictor to explore likely options before filling choices.

2. Ignoring Home State or Category Advantage

Students often forget that cutoffs differ by home state, category, gender, or other factors.

✅ Tip: Always check category-wise and state-wise cutoffs.

3. Poor Choice Filling Order

Some students randomly fill colleges without understanding priority or cutoff ranks.

✅ Tip: Always place your dream college at the top, even if chances are low.

4. Relying on Rumors Instead of Data

“This course is bad” or “placements are low” — without facts — is risky.

✅ Tip: Trust official data sources and verified tools.

5. Skipping Backup Options

Many students don’t fill safe colleges and end up without any seat.

✅ Tip: Always include a few backup choices where you’re sure to get admission.

Final Advice

Your score may be fixed, but smart counseling choices can make a huge difference. Use tools like our College Predictor Tool to plan ahead and stay informed.

👉 Try the College Predictor Now

Objective question

1. Which process is responsible for the production of energy in the sun?

a. Nuclear fission reaction

b. nuclear fusion reaction

c. Exothermic chemical reaction

d. all of the above

2. Which of the following statement is not true for solar energy?

a. It is a dilute form of energy.

b. Its availability diurnal.

c. Availability at any instant of time is uncertain.

d. Its harnessing at large scale is easy.

3. Diffuse radiation has

a. Unique direction.

b. No unique direction.

c. Short wave length as compared to beam radiation.

d. Large magnitude as compared to beam radiation.

4. Terrestrial radiation has a wave length in the range of

a. 0.2µm to 4µm

b. 0.38µm to 0.76µm

c. 0.2µm to 0.5µm

d. 0.29µm to 2.3µm

5. What is the standard value of solar constant?

a. 1Kw/m2

b. 1.367 Kw/m2

c. 1.5Kw/m2

d. 1.7Kw/m2

6. The percentage of solar radiation reflected back to the space by earth is

a. 10%

b. 20%

c. 30%

d. 40%

7. Air mass ratio is minimum

a. When the sun is at its zenith

b. at sunrise

c. At sunset

d. at 6:00 GMT

8. At the altitude angle of 30º what will be magnitude of zenith angle?

a. 60º

b. 120º

c. 150º

d. 60º

9. For 1º change in longitude, the change in solar time is

a. 4 minutes

b. 4 seconds

c. 15 minutes

d. 60 seconds

10. At solar noon, the hour angle is.

a. +90º

b. -90º

c. zero

d. +180º

11. Pyrheliometer is used to measure

a. Beam radiation

b. diffuse radiation

c. Global radiation

d. ettraterrestrial radiation

12. By how much angle Earth tilted from its polar axis

a. 13.5º

b. 33.5º

c. 23.5º

d. 43.5º

13. Earth rotates about its polar axis fro

a. East to West CW

b. East to West ACW

c. West to East CW

d. West to East ACW

14. The angle between sun ray with normal to horizontal surface is called

a. Angle of incidence

c. Altitude angle

b. Zenith angle

d. Declination angle

15. What is the maximum value of declination angle

a. 23.45º

b. 23.54º

c. 24.35º

d. 24.53º

16. The angle between projection of normal to inclined surface with the line due to south is

a. Altitude angle

b. Solar azimuthal angle

c. Surface azimuthal angle

d. Declination angle

17. What is value of declination angle for 14th Feb 2020?

a. -13.61º

b. -14.21º

c. +13.61º

d. +14.21º

18. What is the hour angle at 14 hr

a. +30º

b. +210º

c. -30º

d. -210º

19. The value of zenith angle during sunrise and sunset is

a. 0º

b. 180º

c. 90º

d. 360º

20. The hour angle during sunrise is 75º, so the value of Day length is

a. 5hr

b. 15hr

c. 10hr

d. 20hr

21. What is the value of zenith angle for an altitude angle of 30º

a. 40º

c. 60º

b. 50º

d. 70º

22. What is the standard longitude of India

a. 72.5º

c. 72º

b. 82.5º

d. 82º

23. In India we follow which time

a. GMT (Green witch mean time)

c. CT (Clock time)

b. LAT (Local apparent time)

d. ST (Solar time)

24. Which gas is mostly present inside of sun’s core

a. Hydrogen

c. Carbon dioxide

b. Methane

d. Carbon monoxide

25. Time required for sun’s ray to reach Earth’s surface is

a. 6 min

c. 8 min

b. 7 min

d. 9 min

26. A solar thermal collector

a. Collects the solar energy and reflect it back

b. Absorbs the solar radiation and dissipates into the environment

c. Collects and converts the solar energy into electrical energy

d. Collects and converts the solar energy into thermal energy and delivers it to the next stage of the system

27. The concentration type of collector

a. Firtst absorbs the radiation and then increase the concentration

b. Increase the density of solar radiation before absorbing it

c. Dilute the density of solar radiation before absorbing it

d. Increase the intensity of solar radiation before absorbing it

28. Read the following statement about flat plate collectors and answer the question

i. These are simple in construction

ii. They have high efficiency

iii. They don’t track the sun

iv. They make use of both beam and diffuse radiation

a. I and ii are correct

b. I, ii, iii are correct

c. Only ii is correct

d. I, ii, iv are correct

29. The value of concentration ratio of flat plate collector is

a. 1

b. 10

c. 100

d. 1000

30. Selective surface has the characteristics of

a. Selective absorption of long wave length radiation

b. Selective absorption of short wave length radiation

c. High value of absorptivity of incoming radiation low value of emissivity of outgoing radiation

d. Low value of absorptivity of incoming radiation an high value of emissivity of outgoing radiation

31. The value of heat removal factor FR of a flat plate collector lies in the range of

a. 0 to 0.1

b. 0 to 1

c. 0.9 to 0.95

d. 0.5 to 0.6

32. In an evacuated tube collectors

a. Both conduction and convection losses are suppressed

b. Only conduction losses are suppressed

c. Only convection losses are suppressed

d. Only radiation losses are suppressed

33. Use of booster mirror with a flat plate collector

a. Increase the reflection to the atmosphere

b. Decreases the reflection to the atmosphere

c. Increases the diffusion radiation component on the absorber

d. Increase the beam radiation component on the absorber

34. A cylindrical parabolic concentrator requires

a. 2-axis tracking

b. 1-axis tracking

c. No tracking

d. Seasonal adjustment only

35. What is the typical cooling time of a paraboloidal dish cooker?

a. 2-3hr

b. 20-30 min

c. 20-30 sec

d. 6-12 hr

36. The most important advantages of solar furnance is

a. Heating available throughout the day

b. Cheap low grade heating

c. Availability of both light and heat

d. Heating without contamination of electromagnetic fields

37. A solar thermal Water pump

a. Uses solar thermal energy to evaporate water

b. Uses solar thermal energy to circulate water

c. Uses electric powered pump to circulate water heated by solar energy

d. Uses solar thermal energy for production of power to drive the pump

38. A solar green house

a. Uses solar energy to provide conductive conditions for growth of vegetation

b. Provides enhance radiation for photosynthesis process

c. Prevents fresh air to come in contact with plants

d. Uses solar thermal pump for irrigation

39. A solar cell is basically

a. A voltage source, controlled by flux radiation

b. A current source, controlled by flux radiation

c. An uncontrolled current source

d. An uncontrolled voltage source

40. The efficiency of commercial solar cell lies in the range of

a. 0-10%

b. 10-20%

c. 20-30%

d. 50-60%

41. A typical open circuit voltage of a solar cell is

a. 12 v

b. 6 v

c. 3 v

d. 0.5 v

42. The charge carrier available in a semiconductor material has

a. Free electrons and holes

b. Only electron

c. Only holes

d. Positively charged ions

43. The energy level of donor ions are

a. Very close to the conduction band

b. Very close to the valance band

c. Lies in the middle of energy gap

d. Lies within the conduction band

44. The energy associated with photon is

a. Directly proportional to the wavelength

b. Inversely proportional to the frequency

c. Directly proportional to the intensity of radiation

d. Inversely proportional to the wavelength

45. If no load is connected to the solar PV system

a. It will stop absorbing light

b. It will dissipate energy in the panel and increase its temperature

c. It will start reflecting the light

d. Its voltage will go on increasing till its breakdown

46. The range of wind speed suitable for wind power generator is

a. 0 to 5 m/s

b. 5 to 25 m/s

c. 25 to 50 m/s

d. 50 to 75 m/s

47. Favourable winds for small scale application exists

a. Everywhere on the earth’s surface

b. On 75% of the earth’s surface

c. On 50% of earth’s surface

d. On 25% of earth’s surface

48. Compare to conventional source of power such as thermal power plants, the cos tof wind power is

a. 100 times

b. 10 times

c. Comparable

d. 1/10 times

49. There is little wind in the

a. North pole region

b. South pole region

c. Tropical region

d. 5 degree around the equator

50. When solar radiation falls on earth’s surface, the temperature of

a. Land masses rise faster than water mass

b. Land masses rise slower than water mass

c. Land mass and water mass rises uniformly

d. Only land mass increases water remains stationary

51. A wind turbine extracts maximum power from wind, when the downstream wind speed reduces to

a. One-third that of upstream wind

b. Half that of upstream wind

c. Two-third that of upstream wind

d. Zero

52. The wind turbine blade rotor having a low value of solidity

a. Runs slower

b. Runs faster

c. Produces high torque

d. Has low efficiency

53. As per size of installed capacity of wind power generation in the world, india ranks

a. First

b. Second

c. Third

d. Fourth

54. Storage of biomass energy is

a. Very difficult

b. Inbuilt feature

c. Expensive

d. Impossible

55. Biogas is predominantly

a. Hydrogen

b. Carbon monoxide

c. Carbon dioxide

d. Methane

56. Fluidised bed gasifier produces

a. Low tar and high particulate

b. High tar and low particulate

c. Gas at low conversion efficiency

d. Low exit temperature

57. Compared to petrol operated engine, an ethanol operated engine

a. Produces 50% more power

b. Produces 20% more power

c. Produces comparable amount of power

d. Produces 20% less power

58. Increasing the pressure inside the biogas plant

a. Increases the gas production

b. Decreases the gas production

c. Has no effect on gas production

d. Causes explosion

59. When ambient temperature of biogas plant decrease below 20 degree

a. The gas production increases

b. The gas production first increase then decreases

c. The gas production decreases

d. Remains unaltered

60. The optimum solid concentration of biogas is

a. 37-39%

b. 27-29%

c. 17-19%

d. 7-9%

61. Which material should be added in the feed of biogas plant to increase nitrogen content

a. Lignin

b. Carbohydrate

c. Chopped leguminous plant

d. Night soil

62. Liquefaction of biomass is carried out at

a. High temperature and low pressure

b. Relatively low temperature and high pressure

c. Relatively low temperature and normal pressure

d. Room temperature and high pressure

63. Which one is a source of Non-Renewable Energy?

a) Coal

b) Solar power

c) Wind power

d) Wave power

64. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the nuclear energy sources?

a) High Pollution

b) High waste disposal

c) Unreliable supply

d) High cost of generation

65. Photovoltaic Energy is the conversion of sunlight in to:

a) Chemical energy

b) Biogas

c) Electricity

d) Heat energy

66. Energy is released from coal when it is:

a) Pumped

b) cooled

c) Burned

d) Pressurized

67. What is the % share of fossil fuel consumption globally from Primary Energy resources?

a) 86%

b) 50%

c) 10%

d) 99%

68. Most nuclear fuel used in the world is:

a) Thorium-232

b) Uranium-232

c) Uranium-235

d) Plutonium-239

69. In the production of Wave Energy, which form of energy is used?

a) Potential Energy

b) Kinetic Energy

c) Solar Energy

d) Wind Energy

70. A tidal barrage is built over a :

a) River bed

b) River estuary

c) River end

d) River starting

71. How many forms of Fossil fuels are there?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

72. Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained from:

a) Biomass

b) Fossil fuels

c) Sun

d) Wind

73. SI unit of energy is:

a) Watt

b) Kg

c) Newton

d) Joule

74. Trapped heat inside the Earth is known as:

a) Heat energy

b) Kinetic energy

c) Geothermal energy

d) thermal energy

75. Geothermal Energy is basically which type of energy?

a) Renewable

b) Non-renewable

c) Biotic

d) Non-cyclic

76. Which State of India has high potential for solar energy?

a) Odisha

b) Karnataka

c) West Bengal

d) Rajasthan

77. Which of the following is a Non-renewable Energy Source?

a) Water

b) Wind energy

c) Coal

d) Solar energy

78. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?

a) Fresh Water

b) Salt

c) Clean air

d) Fertile Soil

79. Which Non-conventional energy resource can be exploited most economically?

a) Wind Energy

b) Solar Energy

c) Geothermal Energy

d) Wave Energy

80. The main components of Bio-gas are:

a) CH4 and SO2

b) CH4, H2 and NO2

c) CH4, and NO2

d) CH4, CO2 and H2S

81. Common energy source in Indian village is

a) Electricity

b) Coal

c) Sun heat

d) Wood and animal dung

82. The first controlled fission of an atom was carried out in Germany in :

a) 1920

b) 1930

c) 1938

d) 1948

83. Crude Oil is:

a) Colorless

b) Odorless

c) Smelly yellow to black liquid

d) Odorless yellow to black liquid

84. The process that converts solid coal into liquid hydrocarbon fuel is called:

a) Carbonation

b) Catalytic conversion

c) Liquefaction

d) Cracking

85. Lignite, Bituminous and Anthracite are different forms of:

a) Nuclear fuel

b) Coal

c) Natural gas

d) Bio-gas

86. Boiling water reactor and Pressurized water reactor are related to:

a) Solar reactors

b) OTEC

c) Bio-gas reactors

d) Nuclear reactors

87. When combustion of carbon takes place in insufficient Oxygen, which gas is formed?

a) CO2

b) NO2

c) CO

d) H2O(Steam)

88. What is the per capita energy consumption in India?

a) 100 kWh/year

b) 700 kWh/year

c) 150 kWh/year

d) 400 kWh/year

89. Global warming is mainly caused due to:

a) Emission of Heat energy

b) Emission of CO2

c) Use of nuclear energy

d) Air Pollution

90. Which energy of water is used to produce Hydro-electricity?

a) Potential energy (PE)

b) Kinetic energy (KE)

c) PE & KE

d) None of the above

91. Which of the following is NOT a Greenhouse gas?

a) Sulphur Hexafluoride

b) Methane

c) Carbon dioxide

d) Oxygen

92. The annual potential of Wind Energy in India is about

a) 20K MW

b) 45K MW

c) 80K MW

d) 5K MW

93. The most accepted value of ‘Solar Constant’, a measure to define amount of solar energy that falls on a unit area is about:

a) 1.353 kW/m2

b) 2.353 kW/m2

c) 3.353 kW/m2

d) 4.353 kW/m2

94. The Energy-GDP Elasticity of India is around:

a) 2.5

b) 0.6

c) 1.2

d) 0.75

95. The Installed Capacity of Wind Energy in India at present is about ------% of total Installed Capacity of all energy sources.

a) 2%

b) 16%

c) 6%

d) 26%

96. The PAT (Perform, Achieve and Trade) was launched by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), India on:

a) 26th January, 2018

b) 15th August, 2001

c) 4 th July, 2020

d) None of the above.

97. Utilization of Non-commercial Energy in the world per year is about -------% of Total Energy consumption:

a) 4%

b) 8%

c) 14%

d) 25%

98. The turbine used in a tidal range plant is a

a. Pelton turbine

b. Kaplan turbine with variable pitch blade

c. Kaplan turbine with fixed pitch blade

d. Francis turbine

99. Pumping of water from ocean to basin during high tide

a. Increases the net energy generation

b. Decreases the net energy generation

c. Helps in uniform power generation

d. Decreases the net tidal range

100. The minimum tidal range required for power generation is about

a. 1m

b. 5m

c. 10m

d. 20m

____________________________A N S W E R K E Y S ____________________________________

1.c, 2.d, 3.b, 4.d, 5.b, 6.c, 7.a, 8.d, 9.a, 10.c, 11.a, 12.b, 13.d,14.b, 15.a, 16.b, 17.a, 18.a, 19.b, 20.b, 21.c, 22.b, 23.c, 24.a, 25.c, 26.d, 27.b, 28.d, 29.a, 30.c, 31.b. 32.a, 33.d, 34.b, 35.b, 36.d, 37.d, 38.a, 39.b, 40.b, 41.d, 42.a, 43.a, 44.d, 45.b, 46.b, 47.b, 48.c, 49.d, 50.a, 51.a, 52.b, 53.d, 54.b, 55.d, 56.a, 57.b, 58.b, 59.c, 60.b, 61.d, 62.b, 63.a, 64.c, 65.a, 66.c, 67.a, 68.c, 69.b, 70.b, 71.c, 72.c, 73.d, 74.c, 75.a, 76.d, 77.c, 78.d, 79.b, 80.d, 81.d, 82.c, 83.c, 84.c, 85.b, 86.d, 87.c, 88.b, 89.b, 90.a, 91.d, 92.b, 93.a,94. C, 95.c, 96.c, 97.b, 98.b, 99.a, 100.b